ISTQB Foundation even out exam Sample paper – I
Questions
1 We rip testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) To each one test stage has a different purpose.
b) IT is easier to manage examination bit by bit.
c) We stool run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we give birth, the better the testing.
2 Which of the undermentioned is likely to benefit most from the use of prove tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Retroversion testing
b) Integration testing
c) System examination
d) User acceptance testing
3 Which of the favorable statements is NOT correct?
a) A marginal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ insurance coverage will besides attain 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also reach 100% statement coverage.
c) A stripped-down mental testing set that achieves 100% path insurance coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal quiz set that achieves 100% assertion coverage testament generally observe more faults than indefinite that achieves 100% arm insurance coverage.
4 Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall exist user friendly.
b) The safety device-deprecative parts of the system of rules shall contain 0 faults.
c) The reaction time shall be fewer than one second for the specified design onus.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.
5 Analise the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: "What character of fine do you require, single operating theater riposte?"
IF the client wants 'return'
Ask: "What range, Standard or Cheap-day?"
IF the customer replies 'Cheap-sidereal day'
Say: "That will beryllium £11:20"
ELSE
Say: "That bequeath be £19:50"
ENDIF
Other
Enounce: "That will be £9:75"
ENDIF
Now decide the marginal number of tests that are needed to ensure that complete
the questions have been asked, every last combinations sustain occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
6 Erroneousness guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in factor, desegregation and system testing.
c) is solely performed in substance abuser acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
7 Which of the following is NOT accurate of test reportage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria prat be measured in terms of items exercised by a trial run suite.
b) A measuring of mental test coverage criteria is the percentage of drug user requirements covered.
c) A measure of trial run insurance coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8 In prioritizing what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find American Samoa many faults as possible.
b) examine high risk areas.
c) obtain good prove coverage.
d) run any is easiest to test.
9 Presented the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and natural action descriptions (1-5), which one of the following unexcelled pairs the two sets?
v – screen control
w – test monitoring
x – test estimation
y – incident management
z – contour control
1 – calculation of obligatory quiz resources
2 – maintenance of memorialize of test results
3 – re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 – report on diversion from test plan
5 – tracking of abnormal test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10 Which one of the followers statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by indie teams.
b) Functional testing is victimized to a higher degree structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be real expensive to localization.
d) Cease-users should be involved in system tests.
11 Which of the following is fake?
a) Incidents should forever be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results dissent.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process advance.
d) An incident can be raised against support.
12 Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required spirit level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no faults are found.
d) the users won't find any serious faults.
13 Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the package low test.
b) Incidents may live raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents call for probe and/or correction.
d) Incidents are lifted when expected and actual results differ.
14 Which of the following is not delineate in a social unit test standard?
a) phrase structure examination
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress examination
d) modified specify/decision insurance coverage
15 Which of the following is false?
a) In a system of rules two different failures may give birth different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need non touch on the dependability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16 Which one of the following statements, nearly capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are old to support multi-user examination.
b) They are accustomed capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of exploiter behavior.
17 How would you estimate the amount of Ra-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from past similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b
18 Which of the favorable is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are reliable against user requirements.
b) Information technology lonesome models the examination form.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the check of designs.
19 The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existent system against which test output Crataegus laevigata be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything all but the software package under examine.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by full-fledged testers.
20 Which of the tailing characterizes the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest mental testing phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases merely the about dear to fasten then.
d) Although faults are all but expensive to find during early exploitation phases, they are cheapest to bushel then.
21 Which of the following should NOT usually be an objective for a test?
a) To witness faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software system is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn't mold.
d) To prove that the package is correct.
22 Which of the following is a strain of working testing?
a) Boundary value psychoanalysis
b) Usability examination
c) Performance examination
d) Surety testing
23 Which of the favorable would NOT normally form part of a tryout program?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Docket
24 Which of these activities provides the biggest potential toll saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Mental testing execution
d) Test planning
25 Which of the following is NOT a white box proficiency?
a) Statement testing
b) Path examination
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition examination
26 Data flow depth psychology studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data along paths through the code.
d) the constitutional complexness of the code.
27 In a organization premeditated to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of wage tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nighest solid Cypriot pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis run case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
28 An important gain of inscribe inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to embody tested before the implementation environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the mortal who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
29 Which of the following is the incomparable source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Psychometric test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Platform specification
c) User requirements
d) System stipulation
30 What is the main difference 'tween a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a drilled moderator.
b) An review has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no drawing card.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an review is lede by a house-trained moderator.
31 Which one of the undermentioned describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect generation.
d) IT allows testers to turn involved early in the project.
32 Consolidation testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the elastic system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.
33 Static analysis is trump described as:
a) the analysis of raft programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of plan code.
d) the use of black box examination.
34 Alpha examination is:
a) post-release testing by end substance abuser representatives at the developer's site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end drug user representatives at the developer's site.
d) pre-release testing by end drug user representatives at their sites.
35 A failure is:
a) constitute in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified demeanor.
c) an fallacious step, process Beaver State information definition in a computer plan.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36 In a system of rules fashioned to cipher the task to comprise paid:
An employee has £4000 of remuneration tax free. The side by side £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of Numbers would come down into the same equivalence grade?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
37 The most probatory thing nearly early examine design is that information technology:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) agency inspections are non necessary.
c) can prevent geological fault multiplication.
d) will find wholly faults.
38 Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective direction of testing cipher.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39 Test cases are designed during:
a) test transcription.
b) examine provision.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.
40 A configuration management arrangement would NOT normally cater:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers game.
b) facilities to compare test results with predicted results.
c) the microscopic differences in versions of software portion author code.
d) restricted access to the reservoir code depository library.
Answers for above questions:
Question Serve
1 A
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A
21 D
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 D
37 C
38 D
39 D
40 B
You can also download this sample distribution paper in PDF format from beneath link –
ISTQB question newspaper publisher 1
which of the following brought prosperity to the dutch
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